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Section 1Polity
Lecture 1Polity Test - I

Polity Test – I

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1. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the- Consolidated Fund of India must come from:

 
 
 
 

2. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

 
 
 
 

3. Consider the following statements:

  1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
  2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
  3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

4. Consider the following statements :
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee

  1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
  2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
  3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

5. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

 
 
 
 

6. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

  1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
  2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
  3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
  4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
  5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

7. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

  1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
  2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
  3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

8. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

  1. Directive Principles of State Policy
  2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
  3. Fifth Schedule
  4. Sixth Schedule
  5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

9. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

  1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
  2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
  3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India,
  4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

10. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

  1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
  2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
  3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
  4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

11. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :

  1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
  2. Organizing village Panchayats
  3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
  4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

 
 
 
 

12. ‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in:

 
 
 
 

13. In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?

  1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
  2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to LokSabha
  3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

14. Consider the following statements

  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the LokSabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

15. Consider the following:

  1. Hotels and restaurants
  2. Motor transport undertakings
  3. Newspaper establishments
  4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State Insurance Scheme?

 
 
 
 

16. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

  1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
  2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
  3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

17. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

  1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
  2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

 
 
 
 

18. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

  1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
  2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
  3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
  4. A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

19. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :

  1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
  2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

 
 
 
 

20. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

 
 
 
 

21. All revenues received by the Union. Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the:

 
 
 
 

22. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

  1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
  2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
  3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
  4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

23. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
  3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
  4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

24. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

 
 
 
 

25. Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 25

Lecture 2Polity Test - II

Polity Test – II

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1. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

  1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
  2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
  3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
  4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

2. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?

  1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
  2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements; given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

3. The endeavour of ‘JananiSurakshaYojana’ Programme is

  1. to promote institutional deliveries
  2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
  3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

 
 
 
 

4. A deadlock between the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

  1. Ordinary Legislation
  2. Money Bill
  3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

5. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

  1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
  2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
  3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
  4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

6. With what purpose is the-Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?

  1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry-
  2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
  3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

7. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the LokSabha

 
 
 
 

8. Consider the following :

  1. Right to education.
  2. Right to equal access to public service.
  3. Right to food.

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

 
 
 
 

9. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

 
 
 
 

10. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?

  1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
  2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
  3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
  4. Conducting the delivery of baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

11. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :

  1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
  2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the LokSabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

12. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the RajyaSabha?

 
 
 
 

13. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

  1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
  2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
  3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
  4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
 
 
 
 

14. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

  1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
  2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
  3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

15. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

 
 
 
 

16. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

  1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
  2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
  3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

17. Consider the following statements:

  1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
  2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

 
 
 
 

18. With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
  2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
  3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

19. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

  1. The Finance Commission
  2. The National Development Council
  3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
  4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
  5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

20. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?

  1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
  2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance
  3. ’Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

21. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under me law?

  1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
  2. Preferential allotment of land for getting up business.
  3. Ramps in public buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

22. Consider the following statements:

  1. Union Territories are not represented in the RajyaSabha.
  2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
  3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

23. With reference to “AamAdmiBimaYojana”, consider the following statements:

  1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
  2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
  3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

24. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

 
 
 
 

25. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

  1. National Development Council
  2. Planning Commission
  3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 25

Lecture 3Polity Test III

Polity Test – III

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Section 2History
Lecture 4History Paper - 1

History Test – I

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1. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda?

  1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
  2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

2. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

 
 
 
 

3. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the

 
 
 
 

4. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:

  1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene,
  2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

5. The Rowlatt Act aimed at:

 
 
 
 

6. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is /are correct?

  1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
  2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
  3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

7. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

 
 
 
 

8. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?

  1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
  2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
  3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding BrahmoSamaj?

  1. It opposed idolatry.
  2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
  3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

10. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?

 
 
 
 

11. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolizes

 
 
 
 

12.  

The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
  2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
  3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

13. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

 
 
 
 

14. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

 
 
 
 

15.  Consider the following Bhakti Saints:

  1. DaduDayal
    2. Guru Nanak
    3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

 
 
 
 

16. Consider the following statements :

The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

  1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
  2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
  3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

17. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?

  1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
  2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
  3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

18. Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?

  1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
  2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
  3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

19. Annie Besant was:

  1. responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
  2. the founder of the Theo-sophical Society
  3. once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

20. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

 
 
 
 

21. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?

 
 
 
 

22. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

 
 
 
 

23. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

 
 
 
 

24. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by

 
 
 
 

25. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 25

Lecture 5History Paper - 2

History Test – II

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The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:

 
 
 
 

Consider the following statements:

  1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
  2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because:

 
 
 
 

Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

  1. Avanti
  2. Gandhara
  3. Kosala
  4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

  1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
  2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
  3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?

 
 
 
 

Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

 
 
 
 

Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

 
 
 
 

With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”?

  1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
  2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
  3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

  1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
  2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
  3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
  4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?

  1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
  2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
  3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?

  1. Meditation and control of breath
    2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
    3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

 
 
 
 

The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because

  1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
  2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
  3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Quit India Movement was launched in response to:

 
 
 
 

With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for:

 
 
 
 

Consider the following :

  1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
  2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
  3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

 
 
 
 

The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

 
 
 
 

The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India, In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others.
  2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?

  1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
  2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
  3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

 
 
 
 

Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:

  1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene,
  2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for

 
 
 
 

The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for:

 
 
 
 

With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?

  1. Complete Independence for India.
  2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
  3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

 
 
 
 

With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were:

 
 
 
 

Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?

 
 
 
 

The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 29

Section 3Geography
Lecture 6Geography Paper - 1

Geography Test – I

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A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?

  1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
  2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following areas:

  1. Bandipur
  2. Bhitarkanika
  3. Manas
  4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are Tiger Reserves?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following agricultural practices :

  1. Contour bunding
  2. Relay cropping
  3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon seques-tration/storage in the soil?

 
 
 
 

Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct? 

  1. 1 . They are generally red in colour.
  2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
  3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
  4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

Consider the following crops 

  1. Cotton
  2. Groundnut
  3. Rice
  4. Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

 
 
 
 

When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :

  1. Deep gorges
  2. U-turn river courses
  3. Parallel mountain ranges
  4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following statements :

  1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
  2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
  3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following crops of India :

  1. Cowpea
  2. Green gram
  3. Pigeon pea

Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

 
 
 
 

With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
  2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
  3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

Consider these pairs (2014)

1. Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills Central India
4. Mikir Hills North-East India

 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

 
 
 
 

What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

  1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
  2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
  3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
  4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?

 
 
 
 

Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because

  1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface
  2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
  3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

 
 
 
 

Consider the following factors:

  1. Rotation of the Earth
  2. Air pressure and wind
  3. Density of ocean water
  4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

 
 
 
 

Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

 
 
 
 

Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land?

 
 
 
 

Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

  1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.
  2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
  3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.

 Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

Which of the following is / are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal? 

  1. High ash content
  2. Low sulphur content
  3. Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

 

The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?

  1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
  2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
  3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater implementation?

  1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
  2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
  3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

Variations in the length of daytime and night time from season to season are due to

 
 
 
 

La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino? 

  1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
  2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following kinds of organisms :

  1. Bat
  2. Bee
  3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 25

Lecture 7Geography Paper - 2

Geography Test – II

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The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to

 
 
 
 

With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:

  1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
  2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
  3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following fauna of India:

  1. Gharial
  2. Leatherback turtle
  3. Swamp deer

Which of the above is/are endangered?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following pairs(2013)

National Park                                                 River flowing through the Park

  1. Corbett National Park :                                              Ganga
  2. Kaziranga National Park :                                         Manas
  3. Silent Valley National Park :                                      Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

 
 
 
 

The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?

 
 
 
 

On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion

 
 
 
 

Program vs ministry

consider following pairs:
Programme/ Project Ministry
1. Drought-Prone Area Programme of Agriculture
2. Desert Development Programme of Environment and Forests
3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas of Rural Development

 

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

 
 
 
 

If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because

 
 
 
 

With reference to ‘Changpa’community of India, consider the following statement:  

  1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
  2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
  3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the: 

  1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
  2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
  3. violent upward movement of air and water particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

Consider the following statements: 

  1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
  2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
  3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?

  1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
  2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere

Which of-the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Region vs Produce

Region Well-known for the production of
1. Kinnaur (Himachal) Areca nut
2. Mewat (Haryana) Mango
3. Coromandel (TN-Andhra) Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

 
 
 
 

Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following

  1. Star tortoise
  2. Monitor lizard
  3. Pygmy hog
  4. Spider monkey

Which of the above found in India?

 
 
 
 

Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

  1. Global warming
  2. Fragmentation of habitat
  3. Invasion of alien species
  4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

Consider the following crops of India :

  1. Groundnut
  2. Sesamum
  3. Pearl millet

Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

  1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
  2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
  3. Gene silencing

 Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

 
 
 
 

The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?

  1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
  2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

 
 
 
 
Consider the following pairs :
National Highway Cities connected
1. NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH 6 Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH 15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

 

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

 
 
 
 

With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements :

  1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
  2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands larger than that of wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is / are the reason / reasons? 

  1. Thermal difference between land and water
  2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
  3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
  4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

A state in India has the following characteristics:

  1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
  2. Its central part produces cotton.
  3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following rivers: 

  1. Barak
  2. Lohit
  3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 25

Lecture 8Geography Paper - 3

Geography Test – III

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Consider the following pairs :

Tribe                                                          State

  1. Limboo (Limbu) :                              Sikkim
  2. Karbi :                                               Himachal Pradesh
  3. Dongaria :                                         Odisha
  4. Bonda :                                            Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

 
 
 
 

The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern? 

  1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
  2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
  3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
  4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

 
 
 
 

Two important rivers — one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha — merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?

 
 
 
 

The Himalayan Range is Very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?

 
 
 
 

A particular State in India has the following characteristics :

  1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
  2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
  3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

 
 
 
 

In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat? 

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Kerala
  3. Karnataka
  4. Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

 
 
 
 

In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following pairs:

  1. Nokrek Bio-sphere Reserve : Garo Hills
  2. Logtak (Loktak)Lake : Barail Range
  3. NamdaphaNationalPark : Dafla Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

 
 
 
 

Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following :

  1. Black-necked crane
  2. Cheetah
  3. Flying squirrel
  4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

 
 
 
 

Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in:

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 11

Section 4Economics
Lecture 9Economics Paper - 1

Economics Test – I

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terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to

 
 
 
 

Consider the following statements :

  1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
  2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?

 
 
 
 

The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the: total value of goods and services produced by the nationals

 
 
 
 

In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements :

  1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
  2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Economic growth is usually coupled with

 
 
 
 

The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

 
 
 
 

Consider the following statements: 

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

  1. World Bank
  2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
  3. stability of the government of the concerned country
  4. economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following liquid assets: 

1.Demand deposits with the banks

2.Time deposits with the banks

3.Savings deposits with the banks

4.Currency

The correct sequence of these decreasing order of Liquidity is

 
 
 
 

Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?

 
 
 
 

Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?

 
 
 
 

In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37-90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries? 

  1. Cement
  2. Fertilizers
  3. Natural gas
  4. Refinery products
  5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be:

 
 
 
 

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?

  1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
  2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
  3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government’s objective of inclusive growth? 

  1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
  2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  3. Implementing the Right to Education Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?

 
 
 
 

In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for

 
 
 
 

The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of 

  1. liquidity of assets
  2. branch expansion
  3. merger of banks
  4. winding-up of banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

 
 
 
 

India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons?

  1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
  2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the% people have undergone a significant change.
  3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.

Which of the statements given above1 are correct?

 
 
 
 

To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?

 
 
 
 

A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?

 
 
 
 

Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to:

 
 
 
 

Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy? (2012)

  1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
  2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
  3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
  4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

What does venture capital mean?

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 25

Lecture 10Economics Paper - 2

Economics Test – II

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India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Dividend”. This is due to:

 
 
 
 

The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to

 
 
 
 

With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

  1. Defense -expenditure
  2. Interest payments
  3. Salaries and pensions
  4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?

 
 
 
 

In the context of Indian economy,Open Market Operations’ refers to:

 
 
 
 

Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

 
 
 
 

The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that:

 
 
 
 

Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?

  1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
  2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise? 

  1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
  2. When there is a. natural increase in the value of the property owned
  3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to

 
 
 
 

Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

  1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned-from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
  2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Which of the following grants/ grant direct credit assistance to rural households?

  1. Regional Rural Banks
  2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
  3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

In the context of Indian economy which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?

  1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
  2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid
  3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits
  4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the:

 
 
 
 

Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development :

  1. Low birthrate with low death rate
  2. High birthrate with high death rate
  3. High birthrate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

 
 
 
 

Consider the following actions which the Government can take:

  1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
  2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
  3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.

Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?

 
 
 
 

A “closed economy” is an economy in which

 
 
 
 

Which of the following constitute Capital Account?

  1. Foreign Loans
  2. Foreign Direct Investment
  3. Private Remittances
  4. Portfolio Investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if

 
 
 
 

Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India? 

  1. Subsidiaries of companies in India
  2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
  3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
  4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 
 
 
 

With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?

  1. Balance of trade
  2. Foreign assets
  3. Balance of invisibles
  4. Special Drawing Right

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

A rise in general level of prices may be caused by:

  1. an increase in the money supply
  2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
  3. an increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

Disguised unemployment generally means

 
 
 
 

Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under micro-finance is/are: 

  1. Credit facilities
  2. Savings facilities
  3. Insurance facilities
  4. Fund Transfer facilities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

 
 
 
 

The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

 
 
 
 

What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

  1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
  2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 28

Section 5Science and Technologies
Lecture 11Science and Technologies Paper - I

Science and Technlogies Test – I

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Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:

1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular,
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred 

1. Across different species of plants.
2. From animals to plants.
3. From microorganisms to higher organisms.

Select the correct Solution using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is

 
 
 
 

At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us? 

1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because 

 
 
 
 

Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched?

Spacecraft Purpose
1. Cassini-Huygens Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
2. Messenger Mapping and investigating the Mercury
3. Voyager 1 and 2 Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is /are the importance/importance of discovering this particle? (2013)

1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology to transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

A married couple adopted a male child, A few years later; twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is

 
 
 
 

Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

 
 
 
 

Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the continued expansion of universe?

1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
3.Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

What is “Virtual Private Network”?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following: 

1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3.Gravitational force
4.Plate movements
5.Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth

Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

 
 
 
 

Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

  1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
  2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
  3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

1, It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 
 
 
 

A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the 

1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2. Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3. Violent upward movement of air and water particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?

 
 
 
 

The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz, gravity electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

 
 
 
 

A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD? 

1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm white that of DVD is 1.2 mm.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person? 

  1. Iris scanning
  2. Retinal scanning
  3. Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to 

1. Resist drought and increase absorptive area
2. Tolerate extremes of PH
3. Resist disease infestation

Select the correct Solution using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created? 

1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this? 
1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
3. Internal reflection

Select the correct Solution using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp? 

1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material.

2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.

3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Consider the following phenomena: 

1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colour of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky

Which of the above are optical illusions?

 
 
 
 

Question 1 of 25

Lecture 12Science and Technologies Paper - II

Science and Tcehnolofies Test – II

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Consider the following pairs : 

Vitamin Deficiency disease
1. Vitamin C Scurvy
2. Vitamin D Rickets
3. Vitamin E Night blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

 
 
 
 

Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because

 
 
 
 

Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because

 
 
 
 

Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because

 
 
 
 

Which of the following statements is / are correct? 

  1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
    2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
    3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

Consider the following minerals 

  1. Calcium
    2. Iron
    3. Sodium

Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?

 
 
 
 

The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?

 
 
 
 

Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change? 

  1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
  2. Melting of ice
  3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 
 
 
 

Consider the following diseases 

  1. Diphtheria
  2. Chickenpox
  3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

 
 
 
 

With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
    2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
    3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

  1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
    2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
    3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 
 
 
 

Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning? 

  1. Smelting units
    2. Pens and pencils
    3.Paints
    4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

 
 
 
 

The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to

 
 
 
 

Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?

  1. Chikungunya
    2. Hepatitis B
    3. HIV-AIDS

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 
 
 
 

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