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KPSC - KAS Exam Preparation Test - II
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Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Sangamliterature?1. Melkanakku, the didactic texts, was the work of brahmana Prakrit-Sanskrit scholars.2. The narrative Sangam texts give some idea of state formation with heroic poetry.Select the correct answer using the codegiven below:
Exp) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sangam literature can roughly be divided intotwo groups, narrative and didactic. The narrative texts are called Melkanakku orEighteen Major Works which consist eight ethologies and ten idylls. The didacticworks are called Kilkanakku or Eighteen Minor Works.Statement 2 is correct. The narrative Sangam texts give some idea of the stateformation in which the army consisted of groups of warriors, and the taxation systemand judiciary appeared in a rudimentary state. The narrative texts provide thisinformation with heroic poetry in which heroes are glorified and perpetual wars andcattle raids frequently mentioned.
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. Consider the following statements regarding the Lomas Rishi Caves:1. The cave was patronised by Ashoka for the Ajivika Sect.2. The entrance of the caves is arched in the form of a semicircular Chaitya.3. It is carved in Barabar Hills in Odisha.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Exp: Statement 1 is correct. The Lomas Rishi cave was patronised by Ashoka for the Ajivika sect.Statement 2 is correct. The facade of the cave is decorated with the semicircularchaitya arch as the entrance. Statement 3 is incorrect. The rock-cut Lomas Rishi cave carved at Barabar hills near Gaya in Bihar.
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Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Mathura School of Art?1. The Buddha image at Mathura is modelled on the lines of earlier Yaksha images.2. Images of Vaishnava and Shaiva are found in larger number than images of Buddha.3. The sculptures are represented with clearly visible garments.Select the correct answer using the codegiven below:
Exp) Statement 1 is correct. Buddha in the symbolic form got a human form inMathura and Gandhara. The Buddha image at Mathura is modelled on the lines ofearlier Yaksha images.Statement 2 is incorrect. Images of Vaishnava (mainly Vishnu and his variousforms) and Shaiva (mainly the lingas and mukhalingas) faiths are also found atMathura but Buddhist images are found in large numbers.Statement 3 is correct. There is boldness in carving the large images, the volume ofthe images is projected out of the picture plane, the faces are round and smiling,heaviness in the sculptural volume is reduced to relaxed flesh. The garments of thebody are clearly visible and they cover the left shoulder.
Exp) Mumbai’s Victoria Gothic and Art Deco ensemble was given the green light by ICOMOS (International Council for Monuments & Sites), an advisory body to UNESCO to be included in the World Heritage Site.• The buildings around the Fort, Churchgate and Marine Drive area are included in the Heritage Site tag, with notable structures such as the Bombay High Court, Elphinstone College, National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA) and Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalaya (CSMVS) being considered among the collection of Victorian, Neo-Classical and Indo-Saracenic architecture.• Residential buildings along Oval Maidan, around the Cricket Club of India and the first row of buildings along Marine Drive are part of the Art Deco buildings, as well as Regal and Eros Cinemas.• The Victorian buildings are amongst the finest and most cohesive group of 19th century Victorian Gothic in the world, and the Art Deco of the 20th century is the second largest and homogenous collections in the world.• The Art Deco and Victorian buildings are India’s 37th heritage site, Maharashtra’s fifth, and Mumbai’s third.
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. Which of the following Indian site was recently (2018) included in UNESCO's World Heritage List?
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With reference to vulcanism, consider the following statements:(1) Plutonic rocks are formed over the earth’s surface.(2) Lava emerging out of earth’s surface is known as magma.(3) Basic lava is highly fluid, whereas acidic lava is highly viscous.(4) Geysers and hot springs have no relation with vulcanismWhich of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Explanation:Magma is a hot molten mass deep within the earth. Magma has properties of a liquid.When magma is allowed to cool, it crystallizes into a solid rock form. The rocks formedafter the cooling of molten mass are called igneous rocks.Statement 1 is incorrect. Plutonic rocks are formed when magma cools and solidifiesbelow the earth's surface (intrusive igneous rocks), and volcanic rocks are formed whenlava cools and solidifies on the earth's surface (extrusive igneous rocks).Statement 2 is incorrect. Magma that reaches the earth's surface is called lava. It maybe acidic or basic.Statement 3 is correct. Basic lava is highly fluid, darker in colour and has less silicacontent. Acidic lava is viscous, lighter in colour and has more silica content.Statement 4 is incorrect. Hot springs are formed when superheated water flows onto theearth's surface by vulcanicity. Geysers are intermittent hot springs in which superheatedwater and steam are ejected to the earth's surface at regular intervals. E.g. - The famousOld Faithful geyser in Yellowstone National park, USA.Value Addition:Vulcanicity is the process through which gases and molten rock are either extruded on theearth's surface or intruded into the earth's crust.
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With reference to the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India, whichof the following statements is/are correct?(1) The jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court can be extended andcurtailed by the Parliament.(2) The Supreme Court enquires into the conduct of the Chairman and members
of the Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by theParliament.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Statement 1 is not correct: The jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court can onlybe extended by the Parliament. It cannot curtail them. This, provision ensuresindependence of the Supreme Court of India.Statement 2 is not correct: The Supreme Court enquires into the conduct of theChairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on a referencemade by the President and not the Parliament.
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Consider the following statements about the Mauryan economy:(1) Slavery was absent during the Mauryan reign but emerged during the time of the Kushanas.(2) The use of currency as a medium of exchange was popular during the Mauryan times.(3) There was remarkable growth of settled agriculture during the Mauryan times.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect. It is known that the Mauryans owned large farms known as ‘Sita’ which were worked by numerous slaves and hired labourers. Also, Kautilya in his Arthashastra mentioned elaborately about slaves, both men and women.Statement 2 is correct. The use of currency which began in the pre-Mauryan period became a fairly common feature of the Mauryan period. Currency was used to trade goods and the government paid its officers in cash. It is evident from a large number of coins of Mauryan age found at many places like U.P. and Bihar.Statement 3 is correct. Large-scale clearing of land by the State as well as thecultivation of Crown land under the direct supervision of State’s officers led to anunprecedented growth of settled agriculture, especially in the Gangetic valley.
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Consider the following statements regarding Balance of Payment:(1) If a country is said to be in Balance of Payment equilibrium, it necessarilymeans that the current account deficit is zero.(2) The inflow of foreign investment in a country plays a role in its Balance ofPayment, while remittances received by it plays no role in it.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect.If a country is said to be in balance of payments equilibrium, it means that thecurrent account deficit is financed entirely by international lending without anyreserve movements. Alternatively, the country could use its reserves of foreign exchangein order to balance any deficit in its balance of payments. The reserve bank sells foreignexchange when there is a deficit. This is called official reserve sale. The decrease(increase) in official reserves is called the overall balance of payments deficit (surplus).Statement 2 is incorrect.The balance of payments (BoP) records the transactions in goods, services and assetsbetween residents of a country with the rest of the world for a specified time periodtypically a year. There are two main accounts in the BoP — the current account and thecapital account. The Current account consists of Trade in goods, services and transferpayment such as remittances, while the capital account consists of FDI, FPI, loans,ECB, government aids etc. Hence both FDI and Remittances play a vital role inBalance of Payment.
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Consider the following statements about land grants in Ancient India:(1) Harsha is credited with the grant of land to the officers by charters.(2) Satavahanas started the practice of granting tax-free villages to brahmanas andBuddhist monks.(3) After the eighth century, land grants to temples became a common phenomenon.Which of the statements givenabove are correct?
All the given statements are correct.Land grants in Ancient India:1. Harsha is credited with the grant of land to the officers by charters. Bana Bhatta alsoendorses the land grants made by Harsha to the brᾱhmaṇas and religious establishments.2. Satavahanas started the practice of granting tax-free villages to Brahmans and Buddhistmonks. The Satavahanas were Hindus and claimed Brahmanical status, although they alsomade generous donations to Buddhist monasteries. The lay people in the Satavahana periodgenerally did not exclusively support a particular religious group3. After the eighth century, land grants to temples became a common phenomenon.
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Recently, the Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 was passed. In this context, consider the following statements:(1) The amendment seeks to provide 10 per cent reservation in direct recruitment in government jobs and for admission in higher educational institutions to ―economically weaker‖ sections (EWS) among all castes and communities; excluding Christians and Muslims, who are not eligible under the existing quotas.(2) The 10 per cent reservation will be in addition to the existing cap of 50 per cent reservation.(3) The Bill defines EWS as those with annual household income of below Rs. 8 Lakh.Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 is designed to amend the Constitution to extend 10 per cent reservation in direct recruitment in government jobs and for admission in higher educational institutions to economicallyweaker‖ sections (EWS) among general category to all castes and communities, Christians and Muslims included, who are not eligible under the existing quotas. Statement 2 is correct: The 10 per cent reservation will be in addition to the existing cap of 50 per cent reservation.Statement 3 is correct: Bill defines EWS as those with annual household income below Rs. 8 Lakh. Same income criteria are also applicable for non- creamy layer of OBCs to get reservation in higher educational institutions and government jobs.Additional Information:The 124th constitution amendment providing a 10% quota for ―economically weaker sections‖ from the general category of the population – primarily upper caste Hindus, but also religiousminorities – has been challenged in the Supreme Court. As legal experts have pointed out,the Modi government‘s decision would appear to face two insurmountable obstacles laid down by the Supreme Court itself in its landmark 1993 judgment in Indra Sawhney vs Union of India. These are:1. that the total number of reserved seats/places/positions cannot exceed 50% of what isavailable, and2. that under the constitutional scheme of reservation, economic backwardness alone couldnot be a criterion.
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Which of the following are correctly matched? Founder Political party1. Dr.B.R. Ambedkar A) Republican party of India2. J.B. Kripalani B) Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party3. Shyam Prasad Mukherjee C) Bharatiya Jana SanghChoose the correct code
After Independence, though it was generally accepted that the Congress had the largestfollowing, various other political strands in India were also beginning to take shape. Justbeforethe first elections, Shyam Prasad Mukherjee (industries minister under Nehru) brokeaway to set up the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (a proto-BJP) in October 1951.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar revived the Scheduled Castes Federation (which was later named theRepublican Party).Another high-profile Congress leader, J. B. (Acharya) Kripalani, founded the KisanMazdoor Praja Party . Ram Manohar Lohia and Jaya Prakash Narayan were the forces behindthe Socialist Party.
12 / 25
Consider the following statements regardingthe Mediterranean Climatic region:1. They are characterized by mild and wetwinters.2. Orchard farming is the importantoccupation here.3. This type of climate is found in bothNorthern and Southern hemisphere.Which of the statements given above arecorrect?
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The vegetation in the Mediterrannean region mustadapt to a changing climatic environment characterised by recurring cycles of rainand drought. The Mediterranean basin has long been a site of temperate fruit andnut production. Grapes, olives, figs, almonds, dates, and carobs have been cultivatedthere since early times. The Mediterranean lands are the well-known orchard landsof the world. The mild rainy winters and abundant sunshine, even in winter, havemade these regions verysuitable for fruit growing.• Statement 3 is correct: Mediterranean-climate regions are found between 31 and 40degrees latitude north and south of the equator, on the western side of continents.It is generally accepted that the mediterranean climate occurs in southern andsouthwestern Australia, central Chile, coastal California, the Western Cape of SouthAfrica and around the Mediterranean Basin. The largest area with a Mediterraneanclimate is the Mediterranean Basin, which has given the climate its name.
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With reference to the Judges of the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:(1) The Indian Constitution prescribes a minimum age for a person to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.(2) A Supreme Court Judge can be removed by the President when the Parliament passes a motion to that effect by a special majority.(3) The ground mentioned for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge, in the Indian Constitution, is ‘incapacity’ or ‘proved misbehaviour’ only.Which of the statements given above are correct
Explanation:Statement 1 is not correct. The Constitution does not prescribe a minimum age forappointment of a person to the Supreme Court (SC) as a Judge.Statement 2 is correct. The motion for the removal of the SC Judge has to be passed byspecial majority by the Parliament. According to the Article 124(4) of the Constitution, thePresident can remove a Judge when the Parliament passes a motion with a majority ofthe total membership of each House in favour of his removal and not less than two thirdsof the members of each House present and voting.Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution provides only two grounds for removal of theSupreme Court Judge; 'proved misbehaviour' or 'incapacity.'
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With reference to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which of thefollowing provisions are voluntary in nature?(1) Reservation for the backward classes(2) Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes inPanchayats(3) Financial autonomy for the Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation:The provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act can be grouped into two categories -compulsory and voluntary. The compulsory provisions of the Act have to be included inthe State laws creating the new Panchayati Raj System. The voluntary provisions, onthe other hand, may be included at the discretion of the States, in accordance with thelocal situations and needs.Voluntary provisions of the Act:1. Giving voting rights to members of the Union and the State Legislatures in thesebodies;2. Providing reservation for the backward classes.3. Giving the Panchayats financial autonomy and thereunder the power to levy taxes,fees, etc.4. Devolution of powers to the Panchayat bodies to perform functions as provided in theXIth Schedule to the Constitution. Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes andScheduled Tribes in Panchayats come under the Compulsory provisions.
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In the context of the Parliamentary system of India, the term 'whip' is often in the news. Which of the statements given below is/are correct regarding the office of the Whip?(1) The Office of Whip is mentioned in the Rules of each House of the Parliament.(2) The Speaker/Chairman appoints Whip for each party who ensures attendance of party members.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation:Statement 1 is not correct: The Office of ‘Whip’, is mentioned neither in the Constitutionof India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on theConventions of the Parliamentary System of Government.Statement 2 is not correct: Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its ownWhip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an AssistantFloor Leader. He is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his partymembers in large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a particularissue. He regulates and monitors their behaviour in the Parliament. The members aresupposed to follow the directives given by the Whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can betaken against the erring members of the political party
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Justice Verma committee is related to which of the following?
• Justice Verma Committee was constituted to recommend amendments to the Criminal Law so as to provide for quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women. Hence, option (a) is correct.• The panel was formed in the aftermath of the December 16, Nirbhaya gang rape in 2012 and the ensuing nationwide protests, and submitted its report on January 23, 2013. z It made recommendations on laws related to rape, sexual harassment, trafficking, child sexual abuse, medical examination of victims, police, electoral and educational reforms.• Key recommendations of the committee were: Rape: The committee recommended that the gradation of sexual offences should be retained in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC).Sexual assault: The committee recommended that non-penetrative forms of sexual contact should be regarded as sexual assault. Verbal sexual assault: The committee suggested that use of words, acts or gestures that create an unwelcome threat of a sexual nature should be termed as sexual assault and be punishable for 1 year imprisonment or fine or both. Child sexual abuse: The committee recommended that the terms ‘harm’ and ‘health’ be defined under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2000 to include mental and physical harm and health, respectively, of the juvenile.
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Consider the following pairs :State - State animal1. Gujarat – Asiatic Lion2. Maharashtra – Indian Giant Squirrel3. Arunachal Pradesh – Mithun4. Tamil Nadu – Nilgiri TahrWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
Explanation :“Asiatic lion” • Asiatic lion is state animal of Gujarat. z Asiatic lions are slightly smaller than African lions. • Asiatic lions were once distributed upto the state of West Bengal in east and Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central India. • At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion. • Status Listed in Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, in Appendix I of CITES and as Endangered on IUCN Red List. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.“Indian Giant Squirrel” • Indian Giant Squirrel is state animal of Maharashtra. • Status : Indian giant squirrel is a Schedule – II animal, according to wildlife (Protection) act, 1972 and classified as Least concern by IUCN. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.“Mithun” • Mithun is a large domestic bovine found in Arunachal Pradesh (state animal). It is a matter of pride for the indigenous tribes of the region. • It is the primary source of dairy products, apart from being an item of prestige for the farm owners. • The animal is facing the threat of extinction due to mass slaughter during local festivals and commercial consumption, prompting the civil society to call for its protection • Status: Vulnerable. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched“Nilgiri Tahr” • Nilgiri tahr is state animal of Tamil Nadu. • They are stocky goats with short, coarse fur and a bristly mane. • Status: Listed in Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and as Endangered on IUCN Red List. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
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Consider the following statements regarding the Udyam Abhilasha Campaign that was in news recently:1. The campaign was launched by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)2. It aims to provide more options to farmers to sell their produce directly to consumers, eliminating middlemen. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• Exp.: Green Energy Corridor z It is an Intra-State Transmission System which is being implemented by eight renewable rich States, (Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh).The intra-state transmission component of the project is being implemented by the respective states and the Power Grid Corporation of India (PGCIL) Hence, statements 1 and 2 are NOT correct.• The project includes about approx 9400 km transmission lines and Substations of total capacity of approx. 19000 MVA to be completed by March 2020.• The purpose is to evacuate approx. 20,000 MW of large scale renewable power and improvement of the grid in the implementing States
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Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Fifteenth Finance Commission?1. It has recommended to use 2011 population census as a basis for the devolution of taxes from the Central government to the States.2. For the first time forest cover parameter has been included for deciding the states share in the tax divisible pool. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
• The 15th Finance Commission has recommended the use of Census 2011 instead of the norm of considering Census 1971 for the devolution of taxes from the Central government to the States. Hence, statement 1 is correct.• Many states fear it would lead to a significant loss in tax pool share. Moreover, they see it as a punishment for enforcing the National Population Policy effectively.• In a memorandum presented to the Commission, the state government says that the change in base population figure would penalise horizontal share of taxes to those states which took successful initiatives to reach replacement rates of population in accordance with the National Population Policy.• For the Commission, population has been a constant parameter in deciding the states’ share in the tax pool. In the 12th and 13th Commissions, population got 25 percent weightage while the 14th Commission gave it 17.5 percent weightage.• Other parameters include income distance, forest cover, geographical area, fiscal discipline and tax efforts.• The 15th Commission Terms of Reference (TOR) removes the forest cover parameter, which was included for the first time in the 14th Commission. Instead, the latest Commission has been asked by the Union government to consider the financial needs of it keeping in mind the challenges of climate change, defence and internal security, infrastructure development and expansion of and effective railways. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.• The constitution of each Finance Commission is announced by a gazette notification. The notification comprises terms that list out the Commission’s work and considerations, called the Terms of Reference ( TOR)
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.Arrang the following eventsin their chronological order1. Wavell plan2. C.Rajgopalchari formula3. Desai-liaqat pact4. Quit India movementChoose the correct code
Quit India Movement (1942)• C. Rajagopalachari Formula (March 1944)• Desai-Liaqat Pact (1945)• Congress and League nominees to have equal representation in Central Executive20% of seats reserved for minorities• Wavell Plan (Shimla Conference—June 1945)
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Consider the following statements about the Global Precipitation Measurement(GPM) Mission:1. It provides next-generation global observations of rain and snow to advance our understanding ofEarth's water and energy cycle, improve forecasting of extreme events, and provide accurate andtimely information to directly benefit the society.2. GPM is a joint mission between NASA and the ISRO.Which of the statements given aboveis/are correct?
Explanation:• NASA has released a video created using satellite data, that provides an estimate of the intense rainfall over India that shows the spread of the resulting severe flooding in Kerala and parts of Karnataka.• The Integrated Multi-Satellite Retrievals for GPM (IMERG) is used to estimate precipitation from a combination of passive microwave sensors, including microwave sensor and infrared data.• The data is generated every half an hour, thereby allowing scientists to track rainfall across the globe almost in real time.• GPM is the Global Precipitation Measurement Mission core satellite.• GPM is a joint mission between NASA and the Japan Aerospace Agency, JAXA.
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In a landmark judgment, Five Judge Constitution Bench of Supreme Court has decriminalized homosexuality. In light of the judgment which of the following rights have been provided tothe LGBT community?1. Right to absolute freedom2. Right to freedom of choice and consent3. Right to access medical care4. Right to protect consensual intimacySelect the correct answer using the codegiven below:
Explanation• Every Fundamental Right is subject to reasonable restriction and no freedom guaranteed under the constitution is absolute. [Article 19(2)]• In a landmark judgment, Five Judge Constitution Bench of Supreme Court has decriminalized homosexuality. The Court held the part of section 377 of Indian Penal Code (IPC) as unconstitutional - which criminalized private consensual sexual conduct between adults of the same sex. The Court declared the 156 years old tyranny of section 377 as irrational, indefensible and manifestly arbitrary. However, the Court held that cases of unnatural sexual acts like bestiality or sexual act without consent continues to be a crime under section 377 of IPC.• Important part of judgment: The Court observed that organisation of intimate relation is amatter of complete personal choic between consenting adults. - This is a vital personal right falling within the private protective sphere and realm of individual choice and autonomy.• LGBT community has been disadvantaged in access to healthcare and other governmental facilities.Section 377 infringed on their fundamental right to non- discrimination, to live a life of dignityand privacy as guaranteed under the Constitution.
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The annual “Raisins Dialogue”, a flagship Geo-political conference, is conducted by
Learning: Raisina Dialogue is an annual conference held in New Delhi. It is envisioned to be India’s flagship conference of geopolitics and geo-economics.• The conference is held jointly by Ministry of External Affairs and the Observer Research Foundation (ORF), an independent think tank based in India.• The name of conference comes from Raisina Hill which is the elevation in New Delhi where presidential palace of India, Rashtrapati Bhavan is located.• The first edition of the conference was held in March 2016 with the theme “Asia: Regional and Global Connectivity”. It is organized on the lines of the Shangri-La Dialogue held in Singapore.• It is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral conclave, involving policy and decision makers, including cabinet ministers from various Governments, high-level Government officials and policy practitioners, leading personalities from business and industry etc.• The theme for the 2018 Conference is “Managing Disruptive Transitions: Ideas, Institutions and Idioms”. This theme is designed to explore the shifting dynamics within the global order; where old relationships need new directions, emerging partnerships face unprecedented constraints and the notions of power and sovereignty are challenged. The Dialogue will foster discussions on the role of institutions, the possibility of collective action and successful responses to these modern developments
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Which of the following statements is/ are correct about Chhau Dance:1. Chhau Dance is a tradition from eastern India that enacts episodes fromepics including the Mahabharata and Ramayana.2. Its three distinct styles hail from the regions of Seraikella (Jharkhand), Purulia (West bengal) and Mayurbhanj (Odisha).3. Seraikella and Mayurbhanj style of Chhauuses Mask during performance.Select the correct answer from the code given
Explanation: Chhau Dance Statement 1 is correct: Chhau means a mask. Chhau dance probably originatedas a martial art and performers, apart from a mask, hold swords and shieldsand performing vigorous movements and leaps. This is a popular dance in Odisha, Bihar and Bengal. The stages are decorated and brightly lit by torches, lanterns and fl ickering oil lamps. The musical instruments used are the Dhol, Nagara and Shehnai. The themes often revolve around mythological heroes and warriors from the Mahabharata and Ramayana. Statement 2 is correct: Prevalent in the tribal belt of the bordering areas of the provinces of Orissa, Jharkhand and West- Bengal in eastern India. There are threedistrict forms of Chhau: Seraikella Chhau of JharkhandStatement 3 is incorrect: Mayurbhanj Chhau of Orissa (mask is not used) Purulia Chhau of West Bengal (Chhau mask of Purulia, West Bangal was awarded the Geographic Indication Tag.)In news Recently the distinctive Chhau mask of Purulia, West Bangal was awarded theGeographic Indication Tag.
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Which of the following organisations has recently released the report New India @ 75?
Explanation:Nine Point AgendaNine points agenda on fugitive economic off enders presented by the Prime Minister of India at G-20 annual summit 2018: Strong and active cooperation across G-20 countries to deal comprehensively and effi ciently with the menace economic off enders. Cooperation in the legal process such as effective freezing of the proceeds of crime, early return of the off enders and effi cient registration of the proceeds of crime should be enhanced and streamlined. Joint eff ort by G-20 countries to form a mechanism that denies the entry and safe havens to all fugitive economic off enders. Principles of United Nations Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC), United Nations Convention Against Transnational Organised Crime (UNOTC), especially related to “International Cooperation” should be fully and eff ectively implemented Financial Action Task Force (FATF) should be called upon to assign priority and focusto establishing international co-operation that leads to timely and comprehensive exchange of information between the competent authority and FIUs FATF should be tasked to formulate a standard defi nition of fugitive economic off ender FAFTF should also develop a set of commonly agreed and standardized procedures related to identifi cation, extradition and judicial proceedings for dealing with fugitive economic off enders to provide guidance and assistance to G-20 countries subject to their domestic law. Common platforms should be set up for sharing experiences and best practices including successful cases of extradition gaps in existing systems of extradition and legal assistance etc. G-20 Forum should consider initiating work on locating properties of economic off enders who have a tax debt Ithe country of their residence for its recovery
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